Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 27.06.2025 06:32
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
CPI Report Today: Dow Futures Slip; U.S. and China Agree Trade Truce Framework - WSJ
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Is it possible to run away from home at 16? What are some essential items to bring for survival?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
The Forgotten History (and Slippery Science) of Canola Oil - Eater
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.